Does the right to buy create a right to sell?
A lot of the present unpleasantness about refusing to sell to someone is because there were laws requiring them to sell to anyone who walks into the shop.
Does this create a reciprocal right to demand that anyone who walks in buy something?
Don't answer that, I'm being silly. What's the fallacy for this? Reductio ad absurdum?
A lot of the present unpleasantness about refusing to sell to someone is because there were laws requiring them to sell to anyone who walks into the shop.
Does this create a reciprocal right to demand that anyone who walks in buy something?
Don't answer that, I'm being silly. What's the fallacy for this? Reductio ad absurdum?